[s]
LonelyPilgrim wrote on 05:21, 18th Jan 2005:
Furthermore, God did not write the Bible. Even if He did, in the original, the number of translations it has been through would provide a great number of possibilities for corruption of His word. Unless of course you are suggesting that translators such as Martin Luther were an incarnation of God. That is laughable. But considering that, there are no grounds to dismiss exnihilo's translation as incorrect, and automatically assume that whichever version you happen to be reading is correct.
Firstly, any translation should be based on the text that has been handed down to us in the original languages – the Hebrew tenach, and the Greek New Testament.
The Hebrew text is generally agreed amongst all authorities to be accurate.
However, with the Greek text, there is a problem. In 1881 Westoctt and Hort published a revised Greek text which had somewhere between 5,000 and 6,000 changes from what had become generally accepted as the Textus Receptus (Received Text). So today, one has to decide which of the Greek text’s (or an eclectic text of one’s own) is correct.
LonelyPilgirm, I studied the ‘Version Question’ for a good two years, and can tell you that it is a very dangerous thing to “automatically assume that whichever version you happen to be reading is correct”.
As quoted earlier, “The words of the LORD are
pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.” – Psalm12:6, but not everything which claims to be the word of God is the word of God!
However, the above statement gives us a standard to use in determining whether the claim to be the word of God is true.
Let’s just take one example to demonstrate an impurity. In most modern versions, Mark 1:2 has something along the lines, “It is written in
Isaiah the prophet …”. However, this is not true, as the following quotation is taken from both Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3. The AV (or KJV) has: “As it is written in
the prophets, …”, which is an accurate translation of the Greek in the Textus Receptus and also happens to be true. On this point alone, we can reject nearly all modern versions as being “
impure”.
We also have other marks – for example, are there additions, or subtractions in one version or the other? Note that there are serious consequences for tampering with the word of God.
“
Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it[b/], that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.” – Deuteronomy 4:2
“[b]Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.” – Proverbs 30:6
This is what has happened in Mark 1:2 already mentioned, and for another case see “An incorrect Translation” at:
http://www.aapi.co.uk/mansbacher/incorr ... lation.htm .
“For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book,
If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.” – Revelation 22:18-19
Examples of some 200 changes to modern versions can be seen at
http://www.biblebelievers.com/New_Eye_Opener.html
So you are right in saying that corruptions occur, but God has still left us with his pure word today. And if you ask Him, God will give it to you.
“Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you: For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened.” – Matthew 7:7-8